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Home Practice Test Free

CSSLP Practice Test Free

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  • CSSLP Practice Test Free – 50 Questions to Test Your Knowledge
  • 50 Free CSSLP Practice Questions
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CSSLP Practice Test Free – 50 Questions to Test Your Knowledge

Are you preparing for the CSSLP certification exam? If so, taking a CSSLP practice test free is one of the best ways to assess your knowledge and improve your chances of passing. In this post, we provide 50 free CSSLP practice questions designed to help you test your skills and identify areas for improvement.

By taking a free CSSLP practice test, you can:

  • Familiarize yourself with the exam format and question types
  • Identify your strengths and weaknesses
  • Gain confidence before the actual exam

50 Free CSSLP Practice Questions

Below, you will find 50 free CSSLP practice questions to help you prepare for the exam. These questions are designed to reflect the real exam structure and difficulty level.

Question 1

Which of the following methods is a means of ensuring that system changes are approved before being implemented, only the proposed and approved changes are implemented, and the implementation is complete and accurate?

A. Configuration control

B. Documentation control

C. Configuration identification

D. Configuration auditing

 


Suggested Answer: approves system changes, reviews the implementation of changes, and oversees other tasks such as documenting the controls. Answer: D is incorrect.

Community Answer: A

Documentation control is a method of ensuring that system changes should be agreed upon before being implemented, only the proposed and approved changes are implemented, and the implementation is complete and accurate. Documentation control is involved in the strict events for proposing, monitoring, and approving system changes and their implementation. It helps the change process by supporting the person who synchronizes the analytical task,
Configuration auditing is the quality assurance element of configuration management. It is occupied in the process of periodic checks to establish the consistency and completeness of accounting information and to validate that all configuration management policies are being followed. Configuration audits are broken into functional and physical configuration audits. They occur either at delivery or at the moment of effecting the change. A functional configuration audit ensures that functional and performance attributes of a configuration item are achieved, while a physical configuration audit ensures that a configuration item is installed in management. Configuration control is a set of processes and approval stages required to change a configuration item’s attributes and to re-baseline them. It supports the change of the functional and physical attributes of software at various points in time, and performs systematic control of changes to the identified configuration item is a product (hardware and/or software) that has an end-user purpose. These attributes are recorded in configuration documentation and baselined. Baselining an attribute forces formal configuration change control processes to be effected in the event that these attributes are changed.

Question 2

You are the project manager of QSL project for your organization. You are working with your project team and several key stakeholders to create a diagram that shows how various elements of a system interrelate and the mechanism of causation within the system. What diagramming technique are you using as a part of the risk identification process?

A. Cause and effect diagrams

B. Influence diagrams

C. Predecessor and successor diagramming

D. System or process flowcharts

 


Suggested Answer: redundancy. Answer: A is incorrect. A cause and effect diagram, also known as an Ishikawa or fishbone diagram, can reveal causal factors to the effect to be

Community Answer: A

In this example you are using a system or process flowchart. These can help identify risks within the process flow, such as bottlenecks or
C is incorrect. Predecessor and successor diagramming is not a valid risk identification term.

Question 3

Which of the following specifies access privileges to a collection of resources by using the URL mapping?

A. Code Access Security

B. Security constraint

C. Configuration Management

D. Access Management

 


Suggested Answer: resource collection Authorization constraint User data constraint Answer: A is incorrect. Code Access Security (CAS), in the Microsoft .NET framework, is

Community Answer: B

Security constraint is a type of declarative security, which specifies the protection of web content. It also specifies access privileges to a collection of resources by using the URL mapping. A deployment descriptor is used to define the security constraint. Security constraint includes the following elements: Web
Microsoft’s solution to prevent untrusted code from performing privileged actions. When the CLR (common language runtime) loads an assembly it will obtain evidence for the assembly and use this to identify the code group that the assembly belongs to. A code group contains a permission set (one or more permissions). Code that performs a privileged action will perform a code access demand, which will cause the CLR to walk up the call stack and examine the permission set granted to the assembly of each method in the call stack. The code groups and permission sets are determined by the administrator of the machine to non- authorized users. The Access Management process essentially executes policies defined in IT Security Management. It is sometimes also referred to as
Rights Management or Identity Management. It is part of Service Operation and the owner of Access Management is the Access Manager. Access Management is added as a new process to ITIL V3. The sub-processes of Access Management are as follows: Maintain Catalogue of User Roles and Access Profiles Manage
(ITSM) process. It tracks all of the individual Configuration Items (CI) in an IT system, which may be as simple as a single server, or as complex as the entire IT department. In large organizations a configuration manager may be appointed to oversee and manage the CM process.

Question 4

Which of the following testing methods tests the system efficiency by systematically selecting the suitable and minimum set of tests that are required to effectively cover the affected changes?

A. Unit testing

B. Integration testing

C. Acceptance testing

D. Regression testing

 


Suggested Answer: changes. Answer: A is incorrect. Unit testing is a type of testing in which each independent unit of an application is tested separately. During unit testing, a

Community Answer: D

Regression testing focuses on finding defects after a major code change has occurred. Specifically, it seeks to uncover software regressions, or old bugs that have come back. Such regressions occur whenever software functionality that was previously working correctly stops working as intended. Typically, regressions occur as an unintended consequence of program changes, when the newly developed part of the software collides with the previously existing code.
Regression testing tests the system efficiency by systematically selecting the suitable and minimum set of tests that are required to effectively cover the affected developer takes the smallest unit of an application, isolates it from the rest of the application code, and tests it to determine whether it works as expected. Unit testing is performed before integrating these independent units into modules. The most common approach to unit testing requires drivers and stubs to be written. the application before its implementation into the production environment. It is done either by a client or an application specialist to ensure that the software meets against a software design. Software components may be integrated in an iterative way or all together (“big bang”). Normally the former is considered a better practice since it allows interface issues to be localized more quickly and fixed. Integration testing works to expose defects in the interfaces and interaction between the integrated components (modules). Progressively larger groups of tested software components corresponding to elements of the architectural design are integrated and tested until the software works as a system.

Question 5

Which of the following provides an easy way to programmers for writing lower-risk applications and retrofitting security into an existing application?

A. Watermarking

B. ESAPI

C. Encryption wrapper

D. Code obfuscation

 


Suggested Answer: an existing application. It offers a solid foundation for new development. Answer: A is incorrect. Watermarking is the process of embedding information into

Community Answer: B

ESAPI (Enterprise Security API) is a group of classes that encapsulate the key security operations, needed by most of the applications. It is a free, open source, Web application security control library. ESAPI provides an easy way to programmers for writing lower-risk applications and retrofitting security into

Question 6

Which of the following terms ensures that no intentional or unintentional unauthorized modification is made to data?

A. Non-repudiation

B. Integrity

C. Authentication

D. Confidentiality

 


Suggested Answer: Explanation: Integrity ensures that no intentional or unintentional unauthorized modification is made to data. Answer: D is incorrect. Confidentiality refers to the

Community Answer: B

host.

Question 7

Continuous Monitoring is the fourth phase of the security certification and accreditation process. What activities are performed in the Continuous Monitoring process? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A. Security accreditation decision

B. Security control monitoring and impact analyses of changes to the information system

C. Security accreditation documentation

D. Configuration management and control

E. Status reporting and documentation

 


Suggested Answer: These tasks determine whether the changes that have occurred will negatively impact the system security. Answer: A and C are incorrect. Security accreditation

Community Answer: BDE

Continuous Monitoring is the fourth phase of the security certification and accreditation process. The Continuous Monitoring process consists of the following three main activities: Configuration management and control Security control monitoring and impact analyses of changes to the information system
Status reporting and documentation The objective of these tasks is to observe and evaluate the information system security controls during the system life cycle. decision and security accreditation documentation are the two tasks of the security accreditation phase.

Question 8

Stella works as a system engineer for BlueWell Inc. She wants to identify the performance thresholds of each build. Which of the following tests will help Stella to achieve her task?

A. Reliability test

B. Performance test

C. Regression test

D. Functional test

 


Suggested Answer: B

Community Answer: B

The various types of internal tests performed on builds are as follows: Regression tests: It is also known as the verification testing. These tests are developed to confirm that capabilities in earlier builds continue to work correctly in the subsequent builds. Functional test: These tests emphasizes on verifying that the build meets its functional and data requirements and correctly generates each expected display and report. Performance tests: These tests are used to identify the performance thresholds of each build. Reliability tests: These tests are used to identify the reliability thresholds of each build.

Question 9

Which of the following authentication methods is used to access public areas of a Web site?

A. Anonymous authentication

B. Biometrics authentication

C. Mutual authentication

D. Multi-factor authentication

 


Suggested Answer: create a user account in IIS to enable the user to connect anonymously. Answer: D is incorrect. Multi-factor authentication involves a combination of multiple

Community Answer: A

Anonymous authentication is an authentication method used for Internet communication. It provides limited access to specific public folders and directory information or public areas of a Web site. It is supported by all clients and is used to access unsecured content in public folders. An administrator must methods of authentication. For example, an authentication method that uses smart cards as well as usernames and passwords can be referred to as multi-factor before performing any application function. The client and server identities can be verified through a trusted third party and use shared secrets as in the case of
Kerberos v5. The MS-CHAP v2 and EAP-TLS authentication methods support mutual authentication. to identify a user.

Question 10

You are advising a school district on disaster recovery plans. In case a disaster affects the main IT centers for the district they will need to be able to work from an alternate location. However, budget is an issue. Which of the following is most appropriate for this client?

A. Cold site

B. Off site

C. Warm site

D. Hot site

 


Suggested Answer: use it. This is a much less expensive solution than the hot site. Answer: D is incorrect. A hot site has equipment installed, configured and ready to use. This may

Community Answer: C

A cold site provides an office space, and in some cases basic equipment. However, you will need to restore your data to that equipment in order to make disaster recovery much faster, but will also be more expensive. And a school district can afford to be down for several hours before resuming IT operations, backup site terminology.

Question 11

Which of the following strategies is used to minimize the effects of a disruptive event on a company, and is created to prevent interruptions to normal business activity?

A. Continuity of Operations Plan

B. Contingency Plan

C. Disaster Recovery Plan

D. Business Continuity Plan

 


Suggested Answer: predetermined time after a disaster or extended disruption. The logistical plan is called a business continuity plan. Answer: B is incorrect. A contingency plan is a

Community Answer: D

BCP is a strategy to minimize the consequence of the instability and to allow for the continuation of business processes. The goal of BCP is to minimize the effects of a disruptive event on a company, and is formed to avoid interruptions to normal business activity. Business Continuity Planning (BCP) is the creation and validation of a practiced logistical plan for how an organization will recover and restore partially or completely interrupted critical (urgent) functions within a plan devised for a specific situation when things could go wrong. Contingency plans are often devised by governments or businesses who want to be prepared for anything that could happen. Contingency plans include specific strategies and actions to deal with specific variances to assumptions resulting in a particular problem, emergency, or state of affairs. They also include a monitoring process and “triggers” for initiating planned actions. They are required to help recovery planning is a subset of a larger process known as business continuity planning and should include planning for resumption of applications, data, hardware, communications (such as networking), and other IT infrastructure. A business continuity plan (BCP) includes planning for non-IT related aspects such as key personnel, facilities, crisis communication, and reputation protection, and should refer to the disaster recovery plan (DRP) for IT-related infrastructure government, providing survival of federal government operations in the case of catastrophic events. It provides procedures and capabilities to sustain an organization’s essential. COOP is the procedure documented to ensure persistent critical operations throughout any period where normal operations are unattainable.

Question 12

Which of the following ISO standards provides guidelines for accreditation of an organization that is concerned with certification and registration related to ISMS?

A. ISO 27006

B. ISO 27005

C. ISO 27003

D. ISO 27004

 


Suggested Answer: assessment (ISRA) approaches Answer: C is incorrect. The ISO 27003 standard provides guidelines for implementing an ISMS (Information Security

Community Answer: A

ISO 27006 is an information security standard developed by the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) and the International
Electrotechnical Commission (IEC). It is entitled as “Information technology – Security techniques – Requirements for bodies providing audit and certification of information security management systems”. The ISO 27006 standard provides guidelines for accreditation of an organization which is concerned with certification and registration related to ISMS. The ISO 27006 standard contains the following elements: Scope Normative references Terms and definitions Principles General requirements Structural requirements Resource requirements Information requirements Process requirements Management system requirements for certification bodies Information security risk communication Information security risk monitoring and review Annex A. Defining the scope of process Annex B. Asset valuation and impact assessment Annex C. Examples of typical threats Annex D. Vulnerabilities and vulnerability assessment methods Annex E. Information security risk provides guidelines for information security risk management.

Question 13

Which of the following SDLC phases consists of the given security controls: Misuse Case Modeling Security Design and Architecture Review Threat and Risk
Modeling Security Requirements and Test Cases Generation?

A. Deployment

B. Requirements Gathering

C. Maintenance

D. Design

 


Suggested Answer: D

Community Answer: D

The various security controls in the SDLC design phase are as follows:
Misuse Case Modeling: It is important that the inverse of the misuse cases be modeled to understand and address the security aspects of the software. The requirements traceability matrix can be used to track the misuse cases to the functionality of the software. Security Design and Architecture Review: This control can be introduced when the teams are engaged in the “functional” design and architecture review of the software. Threat and Risk Modeling: Threat modeling determines the attack surface of the software by examining its functionality for trust boundaries, data flow, entry points, and exit points. Risk modeling is performed by ranking the threats as they pertain to the users organization’s business objectives, compliance and regulatory requirements and security exposures. Security
Requirements and Test Cases Generation: All the above three security controls, i.e., Misuse Case Modeling, Security Design and Architecture Review, and Threat and Risk Modeling are used to produce the security requirements.

Question 14

The Data and Analysis Center for Software (DACS) specifies three general principles for software assurance which work as a framework in order to categorize various secure design principles. Which of the following principles and practices does the General Principle 1 include? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.

A. Principle of separation of privileges, duties, and roles

B. Assume environment data is not trustworthy

C. Simplify the design

D. Principle of least privilege

 


Suggested Answer: Principle of least privilege Principle of separation of privileges, duties, and roles Principle of separation of domains Answer: B is incorrect. Assume environment

Community Answer: AD

General Principle 1- Minimize the number of high-consequence targets includes the following principles and practices:

Question 15

Which of the following are the initial steps required to perform a risk analysis process? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose three.

A. Valuations of the critical assets in hard costs.

B. Evaluate potential threats to the assets.

C. Estimate the potential losses to assets by determining their value.

D. Establish the threats likelihood and regularity.

 


Suggested Answer: potential threats to the assets. Establish the threats probability and regularity. Answer: A is incorrect. Valuations of the critical assets in hard costs is one of the

Community Answer: BCD

The main steps of performing risk analysis are as follows: Estimate the potential losses to the assets by determining their value. Evaluate the final steps taken after performing the risk analysis.

Question 16

Numerous information security standards promote good security practices and define frameworks or systems to structure the analysis and design for managing information security controls. Which of the following are the international information security standards? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.
Choose all that apply.

A. AU audit and accountability

B. Human resources security

C. Organization of information security

D. Risk assessment and treatment

 


Suggested Answer: critical processes and systems Compliance: Ensuring conformance with information security policies, standards, laws, and regulations Answer: A is incorrect. AU

Community Answer: BCD

Following are the various international information security standards:
Risk assessment and treatment: Analysis of the organization’s information security risks Security policy: Management direction Organization of information security: Governance of information security Asset management: Inventory and classification of information assets Human resources security: Security aspects for employees joining, moving, and leaving an organization Physical and environmental security: Protection of the computer facilities Communications and operations management: Management of technical security controls in systems and networks Access control: Restriction of access rights to networks, systems, applications, functions, and data Information systems acquisition, development and maintenance: Building security into applications Information security incident management:
Anticipating and responding appropriately to information security breaches Business continuity management: Protecting, maintaining, and recovering business- audit and accountability is a U.S. Federal Government information security standard.

Question 17

Which of the following federal agencies has the objective to develop and promote measurement, standards, and technology to enhance productivity, facilitate trade, and improve the quality of life?

A. National Security Agency (NSA)

B. National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST)

C. United States Congress

D. Committee on National Security Systems (CNSS)

 


Suggested Answer: improve quality of life. Answer: D is incorrect. The Committee on National Security Systems (CNSS) is a United States intergovernmental organization that sets

Community Answer: B

The National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST), known between 1901 and 1988 as the National Bureau of Standards (NBS), is a measurement standards laboratory which is a non-regulatory agency of the United States Department of Commerce. The institute’s official mission is to promote
U.S. innovation and industrial competitiveness by advancing measurement science, standards, and technology in ways that enhance economic security and policy for the security of the US security systems. The CNSS holds discussions of policy issues, sets national policy, directions, operational procedures, and guidance for the information systems operated by the U.S. Government, its contractors, or agents that contain classified information, involve intelligence activities,
The National Security Agency/Central Security Service (NSA/CSS) is a crypto-logic intelligence agency of the United States government. It is administered as part of the United States Department of Defense. NSA is responsible for the collection and analysis of foreign communications and foreign signals intelligence, which involves cryptanalysis. NSA is also responsible for protecting U.S. government communications and information systems from similar agencies elsewhere, which involves cryptography. NSA is a key component of the U.S. Intelligence Community, which is headed by the Director of National Intelligence. The Central Security
Service is a co-located agency created to coordinate intelligence activities and co-operation between NSA and U.S. military cryptanalysis agencies. NSA’s work is bicameral legislature of the federal government of the United States of America. It consists of the Senate and the House of Representatives. The Congress meets in the United States Capitol in Washington, D.C. Both senators and representatives are chosen through direct election. Each of the 435 members of the House of
Representatives represents a district and serves a two-year term. House seats are apportioned among the states by population. The 100 Senators serve staggered six-year terms. Each state has two senators, regardless of population. Every two years, approximately one-third of the Senate is elected at a time. The
United States Congress main function is to make laws. The Office of the Law Revision Counsel organizes and publishes the United States Code (USC). It is a consolidation and codification by subject matter of the general and permanent laws of the United States.

Question 18

Which of the following activities are performed by the 'Do' cycle component of PDCA (plan-do-check-act)? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.
Choose all that apply.

A. It detects and responds to incidents properly.

B. It determines controls and their objectives.

C. It manages resources that are required to achieve a goal.

D. It performs security awareness training.

E. It operates the selected controls.

 


Suggested Answer: security awareness training. It manages resources that are required to achieve a goal. Answer: B is incorrect. This activity is performed by the ‘Plan’ cycle

Community Answer: AE

The ‘Do’ cycle component performs the following activities: It operates the selected controls. It detects and responds to incidents properly. It performs component of PDCA.

Question 19

Which of the following types of activities can be audited for security? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.

A. File and object access

B. Data downloading from the Internet

C. Printer access

D. Network logons and logoffs

 


Suggested Answer: be reviewed periodically. Answer: B is incorrect. Data downloading from the Internet cannot be audited.

Community Answer: ACD

The following types of activities can be audited: Network logons and logoffs File access Printer access Remote access service Application usage
Network services Auditing is used to track user accounts for file and object access, logon attempts, system shutdown, etc. This enhances the security of the network. Before enabling security auditing, the type of event to be audited should be specified in the audit policy. Auditing is an essential component to maintain the security of deployed systems. Security auditing depends on the criticality of the environment and on the company’s security policy. The security system should

Question 20

Which of the following elements of BCP process includes the areas of plan implementation, plan testing, and ongoing plan maintenance, and also involves defining and documenting the continuity strategy?

A. Business continuity plan development

B. Business impact assessment

C. Scope and plan initiation

D. Plan approval and implementation

 


Suggested Answer: phase also consists of defining and documenting the continuity strategy. Answer: C is incorrect. The scope and plan initiation process in BCP symbolizes the

Community Answer: D

The business continuity plan development refers to the utilization of the information collected in the Business Impact Analysis (BIA) for the creation of the recovery strategy plan to support the critical business functions. The information gathered from the BIA is mapped out to make a strategy for creating a continuity plan. The business continuity plan development process includes the areas of plan implementation, plan testing, and ongoing plan maintenance. This beginning of the BCP process. It emphasizes on creating the scope and the additional elements required to define the parameters of the plan. The scope and plan initiation phase embodies a check of the company’s operations and support services. The scope activities include creating a detailed account of the work required, used to facilitate business units to understand the impact of a disruptive event. This phase includes the execution of a vulnerability assessment. This process makes out the mission-critical areas and business processes that are important for the survival of business. It is similar to the risk assessment process. The function of a business impact assessment process is to create a document, which is used to help and understand what impact a disruptive event would have on senior management signoff, and implementing a maintenance procedure for updating the plan as required.

Question 21

Which of the following security models characterizes the rights of each subject with respect to every object in the computer system?

A. Clark-Wilson model

B. Bell-LaPadula model

C. Biba model

D. Access matrix

 


Suggested Answer: and r(s,o) R. A right thereby specifies the kind of access a subject is allowed to process with regard to an object. Answer: B is incorrect. The Bell-La Padula Model

Community Answer: D

The access matrix or access control matrix is an abstract, formal security model of protection state in computer systems that characterizes the rights of each subject with respect to every object in the system. It was first introduced by Butler W. Lampson in 1971. According to the access matrix model, the protection state of a computer system can be abstracted as a set of objects ‘O’, that is the set of entities that needs to be protected (e.g. processes, files, memory pages) and a set of subjects ‘S’ that consists of all active entities (e.g. users, processes). Further there exists a set of rights ‘R’ of the form r(s,o), where s S, o O is a state machine model used for enforcing access control in government and military applications. The model is a formal state transition model of computer security policy that describes a set of access control rules which use security labels on objects and clearances for subjects. Security labels range from the most sensitive (e.g.,”Top Secret”), down to the least sensitive (e.g., “Unclassified” or “Public”). The Bell-La Padula model focuses on data confidentiality and controlled
Wilson model provides a foundation for specifying and analyzing an integrity policy for a computing system. The model is primarily concerned with formalizing the notion of information integrity. Information integrity is maintained by preventing corruption of data items in a system due to either error or malicious intent. The model’s enforcement and certification rules define data items and processes that provide the basis for an integrity policy. The core of the model is based on the rules designed to ensure data integrity. Data and subjects are grouped into ordered levels of integrity. The model is designed so that subjects may not corrupt data in a level ranked higher than the subject, or be corrupted by data from a lower level than the subject.

Question 22

The Web resource collection is a security constraint element summarized in the Java Servlet Specification v2.4. Which of the following elements does it include?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.

A. HTTP methods

B. Role names

C. Transport guarantees

D. URL patterns

 


Suggested Answer: element summarized in the Java Servlet Specification v2.4. The Web resource collection includes the following elements: URL patterns HTTP methods Answer: B

Community Answer: BD

Web resource collection is a set of URL patterns and HTTP operations that define all resources required to be protected. It is a security constraint

Question 23

Which of the following refers to a process that is used for implementing information security?

A. Classic information security model

B. Five Pillars model

C. Certification and Accreditation (C&A)

D. Information Assurance (IA)

 


Suggested Answer: Answer: D is incorrect. Information Assurance (IA) is the practice of managing risks related to the use, processing, storage, and transmission of information or

Community Answer: D

Certification and Accreditation (C&A or CnA) is a process for implementing information security. It is a systematic procedure for evaluating, describing, testing, and authorizing systems prior to or after a system is in operation. The C&A process is used extensively in the U.S. Federal Government. Some
C&A processes include FISMA, NIACAP, DIACAP, and DCID 6/3. Certification is a comprehensive assessment of the management, operational, and technical security controls in an information system, made in support of security accreditation, to determine the extent to which the controls are implemented correctly, operating as intended, and producing the desired outcome with respect to meeting the security requirements for the system. Accreditation is the official management decision given by a senior agency official to authorize operation of an information system and to explicitly accept the risk to agency operations
(including mission, functions, image, or reputation), agency assets, or individuals, based on the implementation of an agreed-upon set of security controls. data and the systems and processes used for those purposes. While focused dominantly on information in digital form, the full range of IA encompasses not only digital but also analog or physical form. Information assurance as a field has grown from the practice of information security, which in turn grew out of practices and procedures of computer security. information security model, also called the CIA Triad, addresses three attributes of information and information systems, confidentiality, integrity, and availability.
This C-I-A model is extremely useful for teaching introductory and basic concepts of information security and assurance; the initials are an easy mnemonic to
The Five Pillars model is used in the practice of Information Assurance (IA) to define assurance requirements. It was promulgated by the U.S. Department of
Defense (DoD) in a variety of publications, beginning with the National Information Assurance Glossary, Committee on National Security Systems Instruction
CNSSI-4009. Here is the definition from that publication: “Measures that protect and defend information and information systems by ensuring their availability, integrity, authentication, confidentiality, and non-repudiation. These measures include providing for restoration of information systems by incorporating protection, detection, and reaction capabilities.” The Five Pillars model is sometimes criticized because authentication and non-repudiation are not attributes of information or systems; rather, they are procedures or methods useful to assure the integrity and authenticity of information, and to protect the confidentiality of the same.

Question 24

Which of the following is a standard that sets basic requirements for assessing the effectiveness of computer security controls built into a computer system?

A. FITSAF

B. FIPS

C. TCSEC

D. SSAA

 


Suggested Answer: Rainbow Series publications. Answer: D is incorrect. System Security Authorization Agreement (SSAA) is an information security document used in the United

Community Answer: C

Trusted Computer System Evaluation Criteria (TCSEC) is a United States Government Department of Defense (DoD) standard that sets basic requirements for assessing the effectiveness of computer security controls built into a computer system. TCSEC was used to evaluate, classify, and select computer systems being considered for the processing, storage, and retrieval of sensitive or classified information. It was replaced with the development of the
Common Criteria international standard originally published in 2005. The TCSEC, frequently referred to as the Orange Book, is the centerpiece of the DoD
States Department of Defense (DoD) to describe and accredit networks and systems. The SSAA is part of the Department of Defense Information Technology
Security Certification and Accreditation Process, or DITSCAP (superseded by DIACAP). The DoD instruction (issues in December 1997, that describes DITSCAP and provides an outline for the SSAA document is DODI 5200.40. The DITSCAP application manual (DoD 8510.1- M), published in July 2000, provides additional of information systems. It provides an approach for federal agencies. It determines how federal agencies are meeting existing policy and establish goals. The main advantage of FITSAF is that it addresses the requirements of Office of Management and Budget (OMB). It also addresses the guidelines provided by the National developed by the United States federal government for use by all non-military government agencies and by government contractors. Many FIPS standards are modified versions of standards used in the wider community (ANSI, IEEE, ISO, etc.). Some FIPS standards were originally developed by the U.S. government. For instance, standards for encoding data (e.g., country codes), but more significantly some encryption standards, such as the Data Encryption Standard (FIPS 46-3) and the Advanced Encryption Standard (FIPS 197). In 1994, NOAA (Noaa) began broadcasting coded signals called FIPS (Federal Information Processing
System) codes along with their standard weather broadcasts from local stations. These codes identify the type of emergency and the specific geographic area
(such as a county) affected by the emergency.

Question 25

Which of the following techniques is used when a system performs the penetration testing with the objective of accessing unauthorized information residing inside a computer?

A. Biometrician

B. Van Eck Phreaking

C. Port scanning

D. Phreaking

 


Suggested Answer: that service and application. Answer: D is incorrect. Phreaking is a process used to crack the phone system. The main aim of phreaking is to avoid paying for long-

Community Answer: C

Port scanning identifies open doors to a computer. Hackers and crackers use this technique to obtain unauthorized information.
Port scanning is the first basic step to get the details of open ports on the target system. Port scanning is used to find a hackable server with a hole or vulnerability.
A port is a medium of communication between two computers. Every service on a host is identified by a unique 16-bit number called a port. A port scanner is a piece of software designed to search a network host for open ports. This is often used by administrators to check the security of their networks and by hackers to identify running services on a host with the view to compromising it. Port scanning is used to find the open ports, so that it is possible to search exploits related to distance calls. As telephone networks have become computerized, phreaking has become closely linked with computer hacking. This is sometimes called the H/P equipments are used to pick up the telecommunication signals or data within a computer device.

Question 26

Which of the following types of attacks is targeting a Web server with multiple compromised computers that are simultaneously sending hundreds of FIN packets with spoofed IP source IP addresses?

A. DDoS attack

B. Evasion attack

C. Insertion attack

D. Dictionary attack

 


Suggested Answer: thereby preventing communications between services. Disrupt services on a specific computer. Answer: D is incorrect. Dictionary attack is a type of password

Community Answer: A

A distributed denial of service (DDoS) attack targets a Web server with multiple compromised computers that are simultaneously sending hundreds of FIN packets with spoofed IP source IP addresses. DDoS attack occurs when multiple compromised systems flood the bandwidth or resources of a targeted system, usually one or more Web servers. These systems are compromised by attackers using a variety of methods. It is an attempt to make a computer resource unavailable to its intended users. This type of attack can cause the following to occur: Saturate network resources. Disrupt connections between two computers, guessing attack. This type of attack uses a dictionary of common words to find out the password of a user. It can also use common words in either upper or lower attack, an IDS accepts a packet and assumes that the host computer will also accept it. But in reality, when a host system rejects the packet, the IDS accepts the evasion attack is one in which an IDS rejects a malicious packet but the host computer accepts it. Since an IDS has rejected it, it does not check the contents of the packet. Hence, using this technique, an attacker can exploit the host computer. In many cases, it is quite simple for an attacker to send such data packets that can easily perform evasion attacks on an IDSs.

Question 27

Which of the following types of obfuscation transformation increases the difficulty for a de-obfuscation tool so that it cannot extract the true application from the obfuscated version?

A. Preventive transformation

B. Data obfuscation

C. Control obfuscation

D. Layout obfuscation

 


Suggested Answer: A

Community Answer: A

Preventive transformation increases the difficulty for a de-obfuscation tool so that it cannot extract the true application from the obfuscated version.

Question 28

Which of the following programming languages are compiled into machine code and directly executed by the CPU of a computer system? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.

A. C

B. Microosft.NET

C. Java EE

D. C++

 


Suggested Answer: computer system. Answer: C and B are incorrect. Java EE and Microsoft.Net are compiled into an intermediate code format.

Community Answer: AD

C and C++ programming languages are unmanaged code. Unmanaged code is compiled into machine code and directly executed by the CPU of a

Question 29

Which of the following security issues does the Bell-La Padula model focus on?

A. Authorization

B. Confidentiality

C. Integrity

D. Authentication

 


Suggested Answer: B

Community Answer: B

The Bell-La Padula model is a state machine model used for enforcing access control in large organizations. It focuses on data confidentiality and access to classified information, in contrast to the Biba Integrity model, which describes rules for the protection of data integrity. In the Bell-La Padula model, the entities in an information system are divided into subjects and objects. The Bell-La Padula model is built on the concept of a state machine with a set of allowable states in a computer network system. The transition from one state to another state is defined by transition functions. The model defines two mandatory access control (MAC) rules and one discretionary access control (DAC) rule with three security properties: 1.The Simple Security Property: A subject at a given security level may not read an object at a higher security level (no read-up). 2.The *-property (star-property): A subject at a given security level must not write to any object at a lower security level (no write-down). The *-property is also known as the Confinement property. 3.The Discretionary Security Property: It uses an access matrix to specify the discretionary access control.

Question 30

Which of the following processes provides a standard set of activities, general tasks, and a management structure to certify and accredit systems, which maintain the information assurance and the security posture of a system or site?

A. NSA-IAM

B. NIACAP

C. ASSET

D. DITSCAP

 


Suggested Answer: maintain the information assurance and the security posture of a system or site. Answer: D is incorrect. DITSCAP is a process, which establishes a standard

Community Answer: B

NIACAP is a process, which provides a standard set of activities, general tasks, and a management structure to certify and accredit systems that process, a set of activities, general task descriptions, and a management structure to certify and accredit the IT systems that will maintain the required security through the use of the questionnaire in NIST.

Question 31

Which of the following phases of the DITSCAP C&A process is used to define the C&A level of effort, to identify the main C&A roles and responsibilities, and to create an agreement on the method for implementing the security requirements?

A. Phase 1

B. Phase 4

C. Phase 2

D. Phase 3

 


Suggested Answer: C&A roles and responsibilities, and create an agreement on the method for implementing the security requirements. Answer: C is incorrect. The Phase 2 of the

Community Answer: A

The Phase 1 of the DITSCAP C&A process is known as Definition Phase. The goal of this phase is to define the C&A level of effort, identify the main incorrect. The Phase 4 of the DITSCAP C&A process is known as Post Accreditation.

Question 32

Which of the following technologies is used by hardware manufacturers, publishers, copyright holders and individuals to impose limitations on the usage of digital content and devices?

A. Hypervisor

B. Grid computing

C. Code signing

D. Digital rights management

 


Suggested Answer: serial numbers or keyfiles. It can also refer to restrictions associated with specific instances of digital works or devices. Answer: C is incorrect. Code signing is the

Community Answer: D

Digital rights management (DRM) is an access control technology used by hardware manufacturers, publishers, copyright holders and individuals to impose limitations on the usage of digital content and devices. It describes the technology that prevents the uses of digital content that were not desired or foreseen by the content provider. DRM does not refer to other forms of copy protection which can be circumvented without modifying the file or device, such as process of digitally signing executables and scripts in order to confirm the software author, and guarantee that the code has not been altered or corrupted since it concurrently on a host computer. It is also called the virtual machine monitor (VMM). The hypervisor provides a virtual operating platform to the guest operating
Grid computing refers to the combination of computer resources from multiple administrative domains to achieve a common goal.

Question 33

Which of the following requires all general support systems and major applications to be fully certified and accredited before these systems and applications are put into production? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.

A. NIST

B. Office of Management and Budget (OMB)

C. FIPS

D. FISMA

 


Suggested Answer: reaccredited every three years. Answer: A is incorrect. The National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST), known between 1901 and 1988 as the National

Community Answer: BD

FISMA and Office of Management and Budget (OMB) require all general support systems and major applications to be fully certified and accredited before they are put into production. General support systems and major applications are also referred to as information systems and are required to be
Bureau of Standards (NBS), is a measurement standards laboratory which is a non-regulatory agency of the United States Department of Commerce. The institute’s official mission is to promote U.S. innovation and industrial competitiveness by advancing measurement science, standards, and technology in ways that standards developed by the United States federal government for use by all non-military government agencies and by government contractors. Many FIPS standards are modified versions of standards used in the wider community (ANSI, IEEE, ISO, etc.). Some FIPS standards were originally developed by the U.S. government. For instance, standards for encoding data (e.g., country codes), but more significantly some encryption standards, such as the Data Encryption
Standard (FIPS 46-3) and the Advanced Encryption Standard (FIPS 197). In 1994, NOAA (Noaa) began broadcasting coded signals called FIPS (Federal
Information Processing System) codes along with their standard weather broadcasts from local stations. These codes identify the type of emergency and the specific geographic area (such as a county) affected by the emergency.

Question 34

In which of the following phases of the DITSCAP process does Security Test and Evaluation (ST&E) occur?

A. Phase 2

B. Phase 4

C. Phase 3

D. Phase 1

 


Suggested Answer: Explanation: Security Test and Evaluation (ST&E) occurs in Phase 3 of the DITSCAP C&A process. Answer: D is incorrect. The Phase 1 of DITSCAP C&A is

Community Answer: C

known as Definition Phase. The goal of this phase is to define the C&A level of effort, identify the main C&A roles and responsibilities, and create an agreement on the method for implementing the security requirements. The Phase 1 starts with the input of the mission need. This phase comprises three process activities: obtain a fully integrated system for certification testing and accreditation. This phase takes place between the signing of the initial version of the SSAA and the formal accreditation of the system. This phase verifies security requirements during system development. The process activities of this phase are as follows:
DITSCAP C&A is known as Post Accreditation. This phase starts after the system has been accredited in the Phase 3. The goal of this phase is to continue to operate and manage the system and to ensure that it will maintain an acceptable level of residual risk. The process activities of this phase are as follows: System operations Security operations Maintenance of the SSAA Change management Compliance validation

Question 35

The build environment of secure coding consists of some tools that actively support secure specification, design, and implementation. Which of the following features do these tools have? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A. They decrease the exploitable flaws and weaknesses.

B. They reduce and restrain the propagation, extent, and damage that have occurred by insecure software behavior.

C. They decrease the attack surface.

D. They employ software security constraints, protections, and services. E. They decrease the level of type checking and program analysis.

 


Suggested Answer: the behavior of insecure software. Answer: E is incorrect. This feature is not required for these tools.

Community Answer: ACD

The tools that produce secure software have the following features: They decrease the exploitable flaws and weaknesses. They decrease the attack surface. They employ software security constraints, protections, and services. They reduce and restrain the propagation, extent, and damage that are caused by

Question 36

You work as a security engineer for BlueWell Inc. According to you, which of the following DITSCAP/NIACAP model phases occurs at the initiation of the project, or at the initial C&A effort of a legacy system?

A. Validation

B. Definition

C. Verification

D. Post Accreditation

 


Suggested Answer: B

Community Answer: B

The definition phase of the DITSCAP/NIACAP model takes place at the beginning of the project, or at the initial C&A effort of a legacy system. C&A consists of four phases in a DITSCAP assessment. These phases are the same as NIACAP phases. The order of these phases is as follows: 1.Definition: The definition phase is focused on understanding the IS business case, the mission, environment, and architecture. This phase determines the security requirements and level of effort necessary to achieve Certification & Accreditation (C&A). 2.Verification: The second phase confirms the evolving or modified system’s compliance with the information. The verification phase ensures that the fully integrated system will be ready for certification testing. 3.Validation: The third phase confirms abidance of the fully integrated system with the security policy. This phase follows the requirements slated in the SSAA. The objective of the validation phase is to show the required evidence to support the DAA in accreditation process. 4.Post Accreditation: The Post Accreditation is the final phase of DITSCAP assessment and it starts after the system has been certified and accredited for operations. This phase ensures secure system management, operation, and maintenance to save an acceptable level of residual risk.

Question 37

Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC) is a logical process used by programmers to develop software. Which of the following SDLC phases meets the audit objectives defined below: System and data are validated. System meets all user requirements. System meets all control requirements.

A. Evaluation and acceptance

B. Programming and training

C. Definition

D. Initiation

 


Suggested Answer: user requirements. System meets all control requirements Answer: D is incorrect. During the initiation phase, the need for a system is expressed and the purpose

Community Answer: A

It is the evaluation and acceptance phase of the SDLC, which meets the following audit objectives: System and data are validated. System meets all system are faithfully incorporated into the design specifications. Proper documentation and training are provided in this phase.

Question 38

You are the project manager for your organization. You are preparing for the quantitative risk analysis. Mark, a project team member, wants to know why you need to do quantitative risk analysis when you just completed qualitative risk analysis. Which one of the following statements best defines what quantitative risk analysis is?

A. Quantitative risk analysis is the process of prioritizing risks for further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact.

B. Quantitative risk analysis is the review of the risk events with the high probability and the highest impact on the project objectives.

C. Quantitative risk analysis is the planning and quantification of risk responses based on probability and impact of each risk event.

D. Quantitative risk analysis is the process of numerically analyzing the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives.

 


Suggested Answer: have been prioritized through the qualitative risk analysis process. Answer: A is incorrect. This is actually the definition of qualitative risk analysis. Answer: B is

Community Answer: D

Quantitative risk analysis is the process of numerically analyzing the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives. It is performed on risk that statement about the quantitative risk analysis process. Risk response planning is a separate project management process.

Question 39

An attacker exploits actual code of an application and uses a security hole to carry out an attack before the application vendor knows about the vulnerability.
Which of the following types of attack is this?

A. Replay

B. Zero-day

C. Man-in-the-middle

D. Denial-of-Service

 


Suggested Answer: mitigate such attacks. Answer: A is incorrect. A replay attack is a type of attack in which attackers capture packets containing passwords or digital signatures

Community Answer: B

A zero-day attack, also known as zero-hour attack, is a computer threat that tries to exploit computer application vulnerabilities which are unknown to others, undisclosed to the software vendor, or for which no security fix is available. Zero-day exploits (actual code that can use a security hole to carry out an attack) are used or shared by attackers before the software vendor knows about the vulnerability. User awareness training is the most effective technique to whenever packets pass between two hosts on a network. In an attempt to obtain an authenticated connection, the attackers then resend the captured packet to middle attacks occur when an attacker successfully inserts an intermediary software or program between two communicating hosts. The intermediary software or program allows attackers to listen to and modify the communication packets passing between the two hosts. The software intercepts the communication packets
Denial-of-Service (DoS) attack is mounted with the objective of causing a negative impact on the performance of a computer or network. It is also known as network saturation attack or bandwidth consumption attack. Attackers perform DoS attacks by sending a large number of protocol packets to a network.

Question 40

Which of the following is a malicious exploit of a website, whereby unauthorized commands are transmitted from a user trusted by the website?

A. Cross-Site Scripting

B. Injection flaw

C. Side channel attack

D. Cross-Site Request Forgery

 


Suggested Answer: unauthorized action. It increases data loss and malicious code execution. Answer: A is incorrect. Cross-site scripting (XSS) is a type of computer security

Community Answer: D

CSRF (Cross-Site Request Forgery) is a malicious exploit of a website, whereby unauthorized commands are transmitted from a user trusted by the website. It is also known as a one-click attack or session riding. CSRF occurs when a user is tricked by an attacker into activating a request in order to perform some vulnerability typically found in web applications which enable malicious attackers to inject client-side script into web pages viewed by other users. An exploited cross-site scripting vulnerability can be used by attackers to bypass access controls, such as the same origin policy. Cross-site scripting carried out on websites were roughly 80% of all security vulnerabilities documented by Symantec as of 2007. Their impact may range from a petty nuisance to a significant security risk, incorrect. A side channel attack is based on information gained from the physical implementation of a cryptosystem, rather than brute force or theoretical weaknesses in the algorithms (compare cryptanalysis). For example, timing information, power consumption, electromagnetic leaks or even sound can provide an extra source of information which can be exploited to break the system. Many side- channel attacks require considerable technical knowledge of the internal uses a sub-system. They are the vulnerability holes that can be used to attack a database of Web applications. It is the most common technique of attacking a database. Injection occurs when user-supplied data is sent to an interpreter as part of a command or query. The attacker’s hostile data tricks the interpreter into executing involuntary commands or changing data. Injection flaws include XSS (HTML Injection) and SQL Injection.

Question 41

Which of the following provides an easy way to programmers for writing lower-risk applications and retrofitting security into an existing application?

A. Watermarking

B. Code obfuscation

C. Encryption wrapper

D. ESAPI

 


Suggested Answer: an existing application. It offers a solid foundation for new development. Answer: C is incorrect. An encryption wrapper is a device that encrypts and decrypts the

Community Answer: D

ESAPI (Enterprise Security API) is a group of classes that encapsulate the key security operations, needed by most of the applications. It is a free, open source, Web application security control library. ESAPI provides an easy way to programmers for writing lower-risk applications and retrofitting security into incorrect. Watermarking is the irreversible process of embedding information into a digital media. The purpose of digital watermarks is to provide copyright protection for intellectual property that is in digital form.

Question 42

Billy is the project manager of the HAR Project and is in month six of the project. The project is scheduled to last for 18 months. Management asks Billy how often the project team is participating in risk reassessment in this project. What should Billy tell management if he's following the best practices for risk management?

A. Project risk management happens at every milestone.

B. Project risk management has been concluded with the project planning.

C. Project risk management is scheduled for every month in the 18-month project.

D. At every status meeting the project team project risk management is an agenda item.

 


Suggested Answer: Risk management is an ongoing project activity. It should be an agenda item at every project status meeting. Answer: A is incorrect. Milestones are good times to

Community Answer: D

 

Question 43

In which of the following DIACAP phases is residual risk analyzed?

A. Phase 1

B. Phase 5

C. Phase 2

D. Phase 4

E. Phase 3

 


Suggested Answer: subordinate tasks are as follows: Analyze residual risk. Issue certification determination. Make accreditation decision. Answer: A is incorrect. Phase 1 is known as

Community Answer: D

The Department of Defense Information Assurance Certification and Accreditation Process (DIACAP) is a process defined by the United States
Department of Defense (DoD) for managing risk. The Certification Determination and Accreditation phase is the third phase in the DIACAP process. Its to the disposition of the system data and objects.

Question 44

Which of the following sections come under the ISO/IEC 27002 standard?

A. Security policy

B. Asset management

C. Financial assessment

D. Risk assessment

 


Suggested Answer: 12.Compliance: It is used for ensuring conformance with information security policies, standards, laws and regulations. Answer: C is incorrect. Financial

Community Answer: ABD

ISO/IEC 27002 is an information security standard published by the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) and by the International
Electrotechnical Commission (IEC) as ISO/IEC 17799:2005. This standard contains the following twelve main sections: 1.Risk assessment: It refers to assessment of risk. 2.Security policy: It deals with the security management. 3.Organization of information security: It deals with governance of information security. 4.Asset management: It refers to inventory and classification of information assets. 5.Human resources security: It deals with security aspects for employees joining, moving and leaving an organization. 6.Physical and environmental security: It is related to protection of the computer facilities.
7.Communications and operations management: It is the management of technical security controls in systems and networks. 8.Access control: It deals with the restriction of access rights to networks, systems, applications, functions and data. 9.Information systems acquisition, development and maintenance: It refers to build security into applications. 10.Information security incident management: It refers to anticipate and respond appropriately to information security breaches.
11.Business continuity management: It deals with protecting, maintaining and recovering business-critical processes and systems. assessment does not come under the ISO/IEC 27002 standard.

Question 45

Which of the following security controls will you use for the deployment phase of the SDLC to build secure software? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A. Change and Configuration Control

B. Security Certification and Accreditation (C&A)

C. Vulnerability Assessment and Penetration Testing

D. Risk Adjustments

 


Suggested Answer: BCD

Community Answer: AC

The various security controls in the SDLC deployment phase are as follows: Secure Installation: While performing any software installation, it should kept in mind that the security configuration of the environment should never be reduced. If it is reduced then security issues and overall risks can affect the environment. Vulnerability Assessment and Penetration Testing: Vulnerability assessments (VA) and penetration testing (PT) is used to determine the risk and attest to the strength of the software after it has been deployed. Security Certification and Accreditation (C&A): Security certification is the process used to ensure controls which are effectively implemented through established verification techniques and procedures, giving organization officials confidence that the appropriate safeguards and countermeasures are in place as means of protection. Accreditation is the provisioning of the necessary security authorization by a senior organization official to process, store, or transmit information.
Risk Adjustments: Contingency plans and exceptions should be generated so that the residual risk be above the acceptable threshold.

Question 46

You work as a security manager for BlueWell Inc. You are going through the NIST SP 800-37 C&A methodology, which is based on four well defined phases. In which of the following phases of NIST SP 800-37 C&A methodology does the security categorization occur?

A. Security Accreditation

B. Security Certification

C. Continuous Monitoring

D. Initiation

 


Suggested Answer: D

Community Answer: D

The various phases of NIST SP 800-37 C&A are as follows: Phase 1: Initiation- This phase includes preparation, notification and resource identification. It performs the security plan analysis, update, and acceptance. Phase 2: Security Certification- The Security certification phase evaluates the controls and documentation. Phase 3: Security Accreditation- The security accreditation phase examines the residual risk for acceptability, and prepares the final security accreditation package. Phase 4: Continuous Monitoring-This phase monitors the configuration management and control, ongoing security control verification, and status reporting and documentation.

Question 47

DIACAP applies to the acquisition, operation, and sustainment of any DoD system that collects, stores, transmits, or processes unclassified or classified information since December 1997. What phases are identified by DIACAP? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A. System Definition

B. Validation

C. Identification

D. Accreditation

E. Verification

F. Re-Accreditation

 


Suggested Answer: ABEF

The Department of Defense Information Assurance Certification and Accreditation Process (DIACAP) is a process defined by the United States
Department of Defense (DoD) for managing risk. DIACAP replaced the former process, known as DITSCAP (Department of Defense Information Technology
Security Certification and Accreditation Process), in 2006. DoD Instruction (DoDI) 8510.01 establishes a standard DoD-wide process with a set of activities, general tasks, and a management structure to certify and accredit an Automated Information System (AIS) that will maintain the Information Assurance (IA) posture of the Defense Information Infrastructure (DII) throughout the system’s life cycle. DIACAP applies to the acquisition, operation, and sustainment of any
DoD system that collects, stores, transmits, or processes unclassified or classified information since December 1997. It identifies four phases: 1.System Definition
2.Verification 3.Validation 4.Re-Accreditation

Question 48

Which of the following statements about the authentication concept of information security management is true?

A. It establishes the users’ identity and ensures that the users are who they say they are.

B. It ensures the reliable and timely access to resources.

C. It determines the actions and behaviors of a single individual within a system, and identifies that particular individual.

D. It ensures that modifications are not made to data by unauthorized personnel or processes.

 


Suggested Answer: Explanation: The concept of authentication establishes the users’ identity and ensures that the users are who they say they are. Answer: B is incorrect. The

Community Answer: A

individual within a system, and identifies that particular individual.

Question 49

Which of the following persons in an organization is responsible for rejecting or accepting the residual risk for a system?

A. Information Systems Security Officer (ISSO)

B. Designated Approving Authority (DAA)

C. System Owner

D. Chief Information Security Officer (CISO)

 


Suggested Answer: referred as approving/accrediting authority (DAA) or the Principal Approving Authority (PAA). Answer: C is incorrect. The system owner has the responsibility of

Community Answer: C

The authorizing official is the senior manager responsible for approving the working of the information system. He is responsible for the risks of operating the information system within a known environment through the security accreditation phase. In many organizations, the authorizing official is also informing the key officials within the organization of the requirements for a security C&A of the information system. He makes the resources available, and responsibilities of an Information System Security Officer (ISSO) are as follows: Manages the security of the information system that is slated for Certification &
Accreditation (C&A). Insures the information systems configuration with the agency’s information security policy. Supports the information system owner/ information owner for the completion of security-related responsibilities. Takes part in the formal configuration management process. Prepares Certification & information security program functions.

Question 50

Martha works as a Project Leader for BlueWell Inc. She and her team have developed accounting software. The software was performing well. Recently, the software has been modified. The users of this software are now complaining about the software not working properly. Which of the following actions will she take to test the software?

A. Perform integration testing

B. Perform regression testing

C. Perform unit testing

D. Perform acceptance testing

 


Suggested Answer: ensure that no existing errors reappear, and no new errors are introduced. Answer: D is incorrect. The acceptance testing is performed on the application before

Community Answer: B

Regression testing can be performed any time when a program needs to be modified either to add a feature or to fix an error. It is a process of repeating Unit testing and Integration testing whenever existing tests need to be performed again along with the new tests. Regression testing is performed to its implementation into the production environment. It is done either by a client or an application specialist to ensure that the software meets the requirement for more units are combined into a component. During integration testing, a developer combines two units that have already been tested into a component, and tests the interface between the two units. Although integration testing can be performed in various ways, the following three approaches are generally used: The top- application is tested separately. During unit testing, a developer takes the smallest unit of an application, isolates it from the rest of the application code, and tests it to determine whether it works as expected. Unit testing is performed before integrating these independent units into modules. The most common approach to unit testing requires drivers and stubs to be written. Drivers and stubs are programs. A driver simulates a calling unit, and a stub simulates a called unit.

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