312-38 Practice Test Free

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312-38 Practice Test Free – 50 Questions to Test Your Knowledge

Are you preparing for the 312-38 certification exam? If so, taking a 312-38 practice test free is one of the best ways to assess your knowledge and improve your chances of passing. In this post, we provide 50 free 312-38 practice questions designed to help you test your skills and identify areas for improvement.

By taking a free 312-38 practice test, you can:

Familiarize yourself with the exam format and question types
Identify your strengths and weaknesses
Gain confidence before the actual exam

50 Free 312-38 Practice Questions

Below, you will find 50 free 312-38 practice questions to help you prepare for the exam. These questions are designed to reflect the real exam structure and difficulty level.

Question 1

FILL BLANK -
Fill in the blank with the appropriate term. ________________________ is the complete network configuration and information toolkit that uses multi-threaded and multi-connection technologies in order to be very fast and efficient.

Question 2

Which of the following analyzes network traffic to trace specific transactions and can intercept and log traffic passing over a digital network? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A. Wireless sniffer

B. Spectrum analyzer

C. Protocol analyzer

D. Performance Monitor

Suggested Answer: AC

Community Answer: AC

Protocol analyzer (also known as a network analyzer, packet analyzer or sniffer, or for particular types of networks, an Ethernet sniffer or wireless sniffer) is computer software or computer hardware that can intercept and log traffic passing over a digital network. As data streams flow across the network, the sniffer captures each packet and, if needed, decodes and analyzes its content according to the appropriate RFC or other specifications.
Answer option D is incorrect. Performance Monitor is used to get statistical information about the hardware and software components of a server.
Answer option B is incorrect. A spectrum analyzer, or spectral analyzer, is a device that is used to examine the spectral composition of an electrical, acoustic, or optical waveform. It may also measure the power spectrum.

Question 3

John works as a C programmer. He develops the following C program:

His program is vulnerable to a __________ attack.

A. SQL injection

B. Denial-of-Service

C. Buffer overflow

D. Cross site scripting

Suggested Answer: C

Community Answer: C

This program takes a user-supplied string and copies it into 'buffer1', which can hold up to 10 bytes of data. If a user sends more than 10 bytes, it would result in a buffer overflow.

Question 4

DRAG DROP -
Drag and drop the terms to match with their descriptions.
Select and Place:

Suggested Answer:

Following are the terms with their descriptions:
<img src="https://www.examtopics.com/assets/media/exam-media/03651/0000400001.png" alt="Reference Image" />
A Trojan horse is a malicious software program that contains hidden code and masquerades itself as a normal program. When a Trojan horse program is run, its hidden code runs to destroy or scramble data on the hard disk. An example of a Trojan horse is a program that masquerades as a computer logon to retrieve user names and password information. The developer of a Trojan horse can use this information later to gain unauthorized access to computers. Trojan horses are normally spread by e-mail attachments. Ping sweep is a technique used to determine which of a range of IP addresses map to live hosts. It consists of ICMP
ECHO requests sent to multiple hosts. If a given address is live, it will return an ICMP ECHO reply. A ping is often used to check that a network device is functioning. To disable ping sweeps on a network, administrators can block ICMP ECHO requests from outside sources. However, ICMP TIMESTAMP and ICMP
INFO can be used in a similar manner. Spamware is software designed by or for spammers to send out automated spam e-mail. Spamware is used to search for e-mail addresses to build lists of e-mail addresses to be used either for spamming directly or to be sold to spammers. The spamware package also includes an e- mail harvesting tool. A backdoor is any program that allows a hacker to connect to a computer without going through the normal authentication process. The main advantage of this type of attack is that the network traffic moves from inside a network to the hacker's computer. The traffic moving from inside a network to the outside world is typically the least restrictive, as companies are more concerned about what comes into a network, rather than what leaves it. It, therefore, becomes hard to detect backdoors.

Question 5

Which of the following refers to the exploitation of a valid computer session to gain unauthorized access to information or services in a computer system?

A. Spoofing

B. Smurf

C. Session hijacking

D. Phishing

Suggested Answer: C

Session hijacking refers to the exploitation of a valid computer session to gain unauthorized access to information or services in a computer system. In particular, it is used to refer to the theft of a magic cookie used to authenticate a user to a remote server. It has particular relevance to Web developers, as the HTTP cookies used to maintain a session on many Web sites can be easily stolen by an attacker using an intermediary computer or with access to the saved cookies on the victim's computer (see HTTP cookie theft). TCP session hijacking is when a hacker takes over a TCP session between two machines. Since most authentication only occurs at the start of a TCP session, this allows the hacker to gain access to a machine.
Answer option A is incorrect. Spoofing is a technique that makes a transmission appear to have come from an authentic source by forging the IP address, email address, caller ID, etc. In IP spoofing, a hacker modifies packet headers by using someone else's IP address to hide his identity. However, spoofing cannot be used while surfing the Internet, chatting on-line, etc. because forging the source IP address causes the responses to be misdirected.
Answer option B is incorrect. Smurf is an attack that generates significant computer network traffic on a victim network. This is a type of denial-of-service attack that floods a target system via spoofed broadcast ping messages. In such attacks, a perpetrator sends a large amount of ICMP echo request (ping) traffic to IP broadcast addresses, all of which have a spoofed source IP address of the intended victim. If the routing device delivering traffic to those broadcast addresses delivers the IP broadcast to all hosts, most hosts on that IP network will take the ICMP echo request and reply to it with an echo reply, which multiplies the traffic by the number of hosts responding.
Answer option D is incorrect. Phishing is a type of scam that entices a user to disclose personal information such as social security number, bank account details, or credit card number. An example of phishing attack is a fraudulent e-mail that appears to come from a user's bank asking to change his online banking password. When the user clicks the link available on the e-mail, it directs him to a phishing site which replicates the original bank site. The phishing site lures the user to provide his personal information.

Question 6

DRAG DROP -
George works as a Network Administrator for Blue Soft Inc. The company uses Windows Vista operating system. The network of the company is continuously connected to the Internet. What will George use to protect the network of the company from intrusion?
Select and Place:

Suggested Answer:

A firewall is a set of related programs configured to protect private networks connected to the Internet from intrusion. It is used to regulate the network traffic between different computer networks. It permits or denies the transmission of a network packet to its destination based on a set of rules. A firewall is often installed on a separate computer so that an incoming packet does not get into the network directly.

Question 7

Which of the following representatives of the incident response team takes forensic backups of systems that are the focus of an incident?

A. Technical representative

B. Lead investigator

C. Information security representative

D. Legal representative

Suggested Answer: A

A technical representative creates forensic backups of systems that are the focus of an incident and provides valuable information about the configuration of the network and target system.
Answer option B is incorrect. A lead investigator acts as the manager of the computer security incident response team.
Answer option D is incorrect. The legal representative looks after legal issues and ensures that the investigation process does not break any law.
Answer option C is incorrect. The information security representative informs about the security safeguards that may affect their ability to respond to the incident.

Question 8

Which of the following honeypots provides an attacker access to the real operating system without any restriction and collects a vast amount of information about the attacker?

A. High-interaction honeypot

B. Medium-interaction honeypot

C. Honeyd

D. Low-interaction honeypot

Suggested Answer: A

Community Answer: A

A high-interaction honeypot offers a vast amount of information about attackers. It provides an attacker access to the real operating system without any restriction.
A high-interaction honeypot is a powerful weapon that provides opportunities to discover new tools, to identify new vulnerabilities in the operating system, and to learn how blackhats communicate with one another.
Answer option D is incorrect. A low-interaction honeypot captures limited amounts of information that are mainly transactional data and some limited interactive information. Because of simple design and basic functionality, low-interaction honeypots are easy to install, deploy, maintain, and configure. A low-interaction honeypot detects unauthorized scans or unauthorized connection attempts. A low-interaction honeypot is like a one-way connection, as the honeypot provides services that are limited to listening ports. Its role is very passive and does not alter any traffic. It generates logs or alerts when incoming packets match their patterns.
Answer option B is incorrect. A medium-interaction honeypot offers richer interaction capabilities than a low-interaction honeypot, but does not provide any real underlying operating system target. Installing and configuring a medium-interaction honeypot takes more time than a low-interaction honeypot. It is also more complicated to deploy and maintain as compared to a low-interaction honeypot. A medium-interaction honeypot captures a greater amount of information but comes with greater risk. Answer option C is incorrect. Honeyd is an example of a low-interaction honeypot.

Question 9

Which of the following is a tool that runs on the Windows OS and analyzes iptables log messages to detect port scans and other suspicious traffic?

A. Nmap

B. Hping

C. NetRanger

D. PSAD

Suggested Answer: C

Community Answer: C

Question 10

How many layers are present in the TCP/IP model?

A. 10

B. 5

C. 4

D. 7

Suggested Answer: C

Community Answer: C

Question 11

Which of the following is a 16-bit field that identifies the source port number of the application program in the host that is sending the segment?

A. Sequence Number

B. Header Length

C. Acknowledgment Number

D. Source Port Address

Suggested Answer: D

Community Answer: D

Source Port Address is a 16-bit field that identifies the source port number of the application program in the host that is sending the segment.
Answer option C is incorrect. This is a 32-bit field that identifies the byte number that the sender of the segment is expecting to receive from the receiver.
Answer option B is incorrect. This is a 4-bit field that defines the 4-byte words in the TCP header. The header length can be between 20 and 60 bytes. Therefore, the value of this field can be between 5 and 15.
Answer option A is incorrect. This is a 32-bit field that identifies the number assigned to the first byte of data contained in the segment.

Question 12

What is the range for registered ports?

A. 1024 through 49151

B. 0 through 1023

C. Above 65535

D. 49152 through 65535

Suggested Answer: A

Community Answer: A

Question 13

Which of the following cables is made of glass or plastic and transmits signals in the form of light?

A. Coaxial cable

B. Twisted pair cable

C. Plenum cable

D. Fiber optic cable

Suggested Answer: D

Community Answer: D

Fiber optic cable is also known as optical fiber. It is made of glass or plastic and transmits signals in the form of light. It is of cylindrical shape and consists of three concentric sections: the core, the cladding, and the jacket. Optical fiber carries much more information than conventional copper wire and is in general not subject to electromagnetic interference and the need to retransmit signals. Most telephone company's long-distance lines are now made of optical fiber. Transmission over an optical fiber cable requires repeaters at distance intervals. The glass fiber requires more protection within an outer cable than copper.
Answer option B is incorrect. Twisted pair cabling is a type of wiring in which two conductors (the forward and return conductors of a single circuit) are twisted together for the purposes of canceling out electromagnetic interference (EMI) from external sources. It consists of the following twisted pair cables:
Shielded Twisted Pair: Shielded Twisted Pair (STP) is a special kind of copper telephone wiring used in some business installations. An outer covering or shield is added to the ordinary twisted pair telephone wires; the shield functions as a ground. Twisted pair is the ordinary copper wire that connects home and many business computers to the telephone company. Shielded twisted pair is often used in business installations. Unshielded Twisted Pair: Unshielded Twisted Pair
(UTP) is the ordinary wire used in home. UTP cable is also the most common cable used in computer networking. Ethernet, the most common data networking standard, utilizes UTP cables. Twisted pair cabling is often used in data networks for short and medium length connections because of its relatively lower costs compared to optical fiber and coaxial cable.UTP is also finding increasing use in video applications, primarily in security cameras. Many middle to high-end cameras include a UTP output with setscrew terminals. This is made possible by the fact that UTP cable bandwidth has improved to match the baseband of television signals.
Answer option A is incorrect. Coaxial cable is the kind of copper cable used by cable TV companies between the community antenna and user homes and businesses. Coaxial cable is sometimes used by telephone companies from their central office to the telephone poles near users. It is also widely installed for use in business and corporation Ethernet and other types of local area network. Coaxial cable is called "coaxial" because it includes one physical channel that carries the signal surrounded (after a layer of insulation) by another concentric physical channel, both running along the same axis. The outer channel serves as a ground. Many of these cables or pairs of coaxial tubes can be placed in a single outer sheathing and, with repeaters, can carry information for a great distance. It is shown in the figure below:
<img src="https://www.examtopics.com/assets/media/exam-media/03651/0001900001.png" alt="Reference Image" />
Answer option C is incorrect. Plenum cable is cable that is laid in the plenum spaces of buildings. The plenum is the space that can facilitate air circulation for heating and air conditioning systems, by providing pathways for either heated/conditioned or return airflows. Space between the structural ceiling and the dropped ceiling or under a raised floor is typically considered plenum. However, some drop ceiling designs create a tight seal that does not allow for airflow and therefore may not be considered a plenum air-handling space. The plenum space is typically used to house the communication cables for the building's computer and telephone network.

Question 14

Which of the following statements are true about an IPv6 network? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A. For interoperability, IPv4 addresses use the last 32 bits of IPv6 addresses.

B. It increases the number of available IP addresses.

C. It uses longer subnet masks than those used in IPv4.

D. It provides improved authentication and security.

E. It uses 128-bit addresses.

Suggested Answer: BEAD

Community Answer: ABDE

IP addressing version 6 (IPv6) is the latest version of IP addressing. IPv6 is designed to solve many of the problems that were faced by IPv4, such as address depletion, security, auto-configuration, and extensibility. With the fast increasing number of networks and the expansion of the World Wide Web, the allotted IP addresses are depleting rapidly, and the need for more network addresses is arising. IPv6 solves this problem, as it uses a 128-bit address that can produce a lot more IP addresses. These addresses are hexadecimal numbers, made up of eight octet pairs. An example of an IPv6 address is 45CF: 6D53: 12CD: AFC7: E654:
BB32: 543C: FACE.
Answer option C is incorrect. The subnet masks used in IPv6 addresses are of the same length as those used in IPv4 addresses.

Question 15

In which of the following conditions does the system enter ROM monitor mode? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A. The router does not have a configuration file.

B. There is a need to set operating parameters.

C. The user interrupts the boot sequence.

D. The router does not find a valid operating system image.

Suggested Answer: DC

The system enters ROM monitor mode if the router does not find a valid operating system image, or if a user interrupts the boot sequence. From ROM monitor mode, a user can boot the device or perform diagnostic tests.
Answer option A is incorrect. If the router does not have a configuration file, it will automatically enter Setup mode when the user switches it on. Setup mode creates an initial configuration.
Answer option B is incorrect. Privileged EXEC is used for setting operating parameters.

Question 16

Which of the following is a tool that runs on the Windows OS and analyzes iptables log messages to detect port scans and other suspicious traffic?

A. PSAD

B. Hping

C. NetRanger

D. Nmap

Suggested Answer: A

PSAD is a tool that runs on the Windows OS and analyzes iptables log messages to detect port scans and other suspicious traffic. It includes many signatures from the IDS to detect probes for various backdoor programs such as EvilFTP, GirlFriend, SubSeven, DDoS tools (mstream, shaft), and advanced port scans
(FIN, NULL, XMAS). If it is combined with fwsnort and the Netfilter string match extension, it detects most of the attacks described in the Snort rule set that involve application layer data.
Answer option C is incorrect. NetRanger is the complete network configuration and information toolkit that includes the following tools: Ping tool, Trace Route tool,
Host Lookup tool, Internet time synchronizer, Whois tool, Finger Unix hosts tool, Host and port scanning tool, check multiple POP3 mail accounts tool, manage dialup connections tool, Quote of the day tool, and monitor Network Settings tool. These tools are integrated in order to use an application interface with full online help. NetRanger is designed for both new and experienced users. This tool is used to help diagnose network problems and to get information about users, hosts, and networks on the Internet or on a user computer network. NetRanger uses multi-threaded and multi-connection technologies in order to be very fast and efficient.
Answer option D is incorrect. Nmap is a free open-source utility for network exploration and security auditing. It is used to discover computers and services on a computer network, thus creating a "map" of the network. Just like many simple port scanners, Nmap is capable of discovering passive services. In addition, Nmap may be able to determine various details about the remote computers. These include operating system, device type, uptime, software product used to run a service, exact version number of that product, presence of some firewall techniques and, on a local area network, even vendor of the remote network card. Nmap runs on Linux, Microsoft Windows, etc.

Question 17

FILL BLANK -
Fill in the blank with the appropriate term. A _______________device is used for uniquely recognizing humans based upon one or more intrinsic physical or behavioral traits.

Suggested Answer: biometric

A biometric device is used for uniquely recognizing humans based upon one or more intrinsic, physical, or behavioral traits.
Biometrics is used as a form of identity access management and access control. It is also used to identify individuals in groups that are under surveillance.
Biometric characteristics can be divided into two main classes:
1. Physiological: These devices are related to the shape of the body. These are not limited to the fingerprint, face recognition, DNA, hand and palm geometry, and iris recognition, which has largely replaced the retina and odor/scent.
2. Behavioral: These are related to the behavior of a person. They are not limited to the typing rhythm, gait, and voice.

Question 18

Which of the following IP class addresses are not allotted to hosts? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A. Class C

B. Class D

C. Class A

D. Class B

E. Class E

Suggested Answer: BE

Class addresses D and E are not allotted to hosts. Class D addresses are reserved for multicasting, and their address range can extend from 224 to 239. Class E addresses are reserved for experimental purposes. Their addresses range from 240 to 254.
Answer option C is incorrect. Class A addresses are specified for large networks. It consists of up to 16,777,214 client devices (hosts), and their address range can extend from 1 to 126.
Answer option D is incorrect. Class B addresses are specified for medium size networks. It consists of up to 65,534 client devices, and their address range can extend from 128 to 191.
Answer option A is incorrect. Class C addresses are specified for small local area networks (LANs). It consists of up to 245 client devices, and their address range can extend from 192 to 223.

Question 19

Which of the following statements are true about a wireless network?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A. Data can be shared easily between wireless devices.

B. It provides mobility to users to access a network.

C. Data can be transmitted in different ways by using Cellular Networks, Mobitex, DataTAC, etc.

D. It is easy to connect.

Suggested Answer: ABCD

Community Answer: ABCD

Question 20

Which of the following steps of the OPSEC process examines each aspect of the planned operation to identify OPSEC indicators that could reveal critical information and then compare those indicators with the adversary's intelligence collection capabilities identified in the previous action?

A. Analysis of Threats

B. Application of Appropriate OPSEC Measures

C. Identification of Critical Information

D. Analysis of Vulnerabilities

E. Assessment of Risk

Suggested Answer: D

OPSEC is a 5-step process that helps in developing protection mechanisms in order to safeguard sensitive information and preserve essential secrecy.
The OPSEC process has five steps, which are as follows:
1.Identification of Critical Information: This step includes identifying information vitally needed by an adversary, which focuses the remainder of the OPSEC process on protecting vital information, rather than attempting to protect all classified or sensitive unclassified information.
2.Analysis of Threats: This step includes the research and analysis of intelligence, counter-intelligence, and open source information to identify likely adversaries to a planned operation.
3.Analysis of Vulnerabilities: It includes examining each aspect of the planned operation to identify OPSEC indicators that could reveal critical information and then comparing those indicators with the adversary's intelligence collection capabilities identified in the previous action.
4.Assessment of Risk: Firstly, planners analyze the vulnerabilities identified in the previous action and identify possible OPSEC measures for each vulnerability.
Secondly, specific OPSEC measures are selected for execution based upon a risk assessment done by the commander and staff.
5.Application of Appropriate OPSEC Measures: The command implements the OPSEC measures selected in the assessment of risk action or, in the case of planned future operations and activities, includes the measures in specific OPSEC plans.

Question 21

Which of the following steps will NOT make a server fault tolerant? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. (Choose two.)

A. Adding a second power supply unit

B. Performing regular backup of the server

C. Adding one more same sized disk as mirror on the server

D. Implementing cluster servers' facility

E. Encrypting confidential data stored on the server

Suggested Answer: BE

Encrypting confidential data stored on the server and performing regular backup will not make the server fault tolerant.
Fault tolerance is the ability to continue work when a hardware failure occurs on a system. A fault-tolerant system is designed from the ground up for reliability by building multiples of all critical components, such as CPUs, memories, disks and power supplies into the same computer. In the event one component fails, another takes over without skipping a beat.
Answer options A, C, and D are incorrect. The following steps will make the server fault tolerant:
Adding a second power supply unit
Adding one more same sized disk as a mirror on the server implementing cluster servers facility

Question 22

You have just set up a wireless network for customers at a coffee shop. Which of the following are good security measures to implement? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. (Choose two.)

A. Using WPA encryption

B. Not broadcasting SSID

C. Using WEP encryption

D. MAC filtering the router

Suggested Answer: CA

With either encryption method (WEP or WPA), you can give the password to the customers who need it, and even change it frequently (daily if you like). So this won't be an inconvenience for the customers.

Question 23

Which of the following fields in the IPv6 header is decremented by 1 for each router that forwards the packet?

A. Flow label

B. Next header

C. Traffic class

D. Hop limit

Suggested Answer: D

Community Answer: D

The hop limit field in the IPv6 header is decremented by 1 for each router that forwards a packet. The packet is discarded when the hop limit field reaches zero.
Answer option B is incorrect. Next header is an 8-bit field that specifies the next encapsulated protocol.
Answer option A is incorrect. Flow label is a 20-bit field that is used for specifying special router handling from source to destination for a sequence of packets.
Answer option C is incorrect. Traffic class is an 8-bit field that specifies the Internet traffic priority delivery value.

Question 24

Which of the following layers of TCP/IP model is used to move packets between the Internet Layer interfaces of two different hosts on the same link?

A. Application layer

B. Internet layer

C. Link layer

D. Transport Layer

E. None

Suggested Answer: C

The Link Layer of TCP/IP model is the networking scope of the local network connection to which a host is attached. This is the lowest component layer of the
Internet protocols, as TCP/IP is designed to be hardware independent. As a result, TCP/IP has been implemented on top of virtually any hardware networking technology in existence. The Link Layer is used to move packets between the Internet Layer interfaces of two different hosts on the same link. The processes of transmitting and receiving packets on a given link can be controlled both in the software device driver for the network card, as well as on firmware or specialized chipsets.
Answer option B is incorrect. The Internet Layer of the TCP/IP model solves the problem of sending packets across one or more networks. Internetworking requires sending data from the source network to the destination network. This process is called routing. IP can carry data for a number of different upper layer protocols.
Answer option D is incorrect. The Transport Layer of TCP/IP model is responsible for end-to-end message transfer capabilities independent of the underlying network, along with error control, segmentation, flow control, congestion control, and application addressing (port numbers). End to end message transmission or connecting applications at the transport layer can be categorized as either connection-oriented, implemented in Transmission Control Protocol (TCP), or connectionless, implemented in User Datagram Protocol (UDP).
Answer option is incorrect. The Application Layer of TCP/IP model refers to the higher-level protocols used by most applications for network communication.
Examples of application layer protocols include the File Transfer Protocol (FTP) and the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP). Data coded according to application layer protocols are then encapsulated into one or more transport layer protocols, which in turn use lower layer protocols to affect actual data transfer.

Question 25

How many layers are present in the OSI layer model?

A. 5

B. 4

C. 7

D. 9

Suggested Answer: C

Community Answer: C

Question 26

Which of the following encryption techniques do digital signatures use?

A. MD5

B. RSA

C. Blowfish

D. IDEA

Suggested Answer: A

Community Answer: B

Question 27

Which of the following protocols is used for inter-domain multicast routing?

A. BGP

B. RPC

C. VoIP

D. RADIUS

Suggested Answer: A

Question 28

Which of the following tools is used to ping a given range of IP addresses and resolve the host name of the remote system?

A. SuperScan

B. Netscan

C. Hping

D. Nmap

Suggested Answer: A

Question 29

Which of the following IEEE standards defines a physical bus topology?

A. 802.4

B. 802.5

C. 802.6

D. 802.3

Suggested Answer: A

Community Answer: B

Question 30

Which of the following is a mandatory password-based and key-exchange authentication protocol?

A. PPP

B. CHAP

C. VRRP

D. DH-CHAP

Suggested Answer: D

Question 31

CSMA/CD is specified in which of the following IEEE standards?

A. 802.3

B. 802.2

C. 802.1

D. 802.15

Suggested Answer: A

Community Answer: A

Question 32

Which of the following commands is used for port scanning?

A. nc -t

B. nc -z

C. nc -v

D. nc -d

Suggested Answer: B

Question 33

In which of the following transmission modes is communication uni-directional?

A. Root mode

B. Full-duplex mode

C. Half-duplex mode

D. Simplex mode

Suggested Answer: D

Community Answer: C

Question 34

Which of the following is a term to describe the use of inert gases and chemical agents to extinguish a fire?

A. Gaseous fire suppression

B. Fire alarm system

C. Fire sprinkler

D. Fire suppression system

Suggested Answer: A

Community Answer: D

Question 35

Which of the following is also known as slag code?

A. Trojan

B. Logic bomb

C. Worm

D. IRC bot

Suggested Answer: B

Question 36

Which of the following UTP cables supports transmission up to 20MHz?

A. Category 2

B. Category 5e

C. Category 4

D. Category 1

Suggested Answer: C

Community Answer: C

Question 37

Which of the following IEEE standards provides specifications for wireless ATM systems?

A. 802.1

B. 802.5

C. 802.3

D. 802.11a

Suggested Answer: D

Question 38

Which of the following is a session layer protocol?

A. RPC

B. SLP

C. RDP

D. ICMP

Suggested Answer: A

Question 39

Which of the following is a presentation layer protocol?

A. TCP

B. RPC

C. BGP

D. LWAPP

Suggested Answer: B

Community Answer: B

Question 40

Which of the following layers provides communication session management between host computers?

A. Application layer

B. Internet layer

C. Transport layer

D. Link layer

Suggested Answer: C

Question 41

What is the range for private ports?

A. 49152 through 65535

B. 1024 through 49151

C. Above 65535

D. 0 through 1023

Suggested Answer: A

Community Answer: A

Question 42

Which of the following TCP/IP state transitions represents no connection state at all?

A. Closed

B. Closing

C. Close-wait

D. Fin-wait-1

Suggested Answer: A

Question 43

Token Ring is standardized by which of the following IEEE standards?

A. 802.2

B. 802.4

C. 802.3

D. 802.1

Suggested Answer: B

Question 44

Which of the following layers of the OSI model provides physical addressing?

A. Application layer

B. Network layer

C. Physical layer

D. Data link layer

Suggested Answer: D

Community Answer: D

Question 45

Which of the following steps OPSEC process examines every aspect of the proposed operation to identify the OPSEC indicators that can reveal important information and then compare them with indicators of the opponent's intelligence collection capabilities identified in the previous activity?

A. Identification of Critical Information

B. analysis weakness

C. risk assessment

D. Appropriate OPSEC measures

E. analysis of threats

Suggested Answer: E

Community Answer: E

Question 46

Which of the following protocols is used for E-mail?

A. TELNET

B. MIME

C. SSH

D. SMTP

Suggested Answer: D

Question 47

Which of the following IP addresses is not reserved for the hosts? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A. E-Class

B. class D

C. class A

D. B-

Suggested Answer: AB

Question 48

You are Network Administrator Investment Bank. You're worried about people breeching network and can steal information before you can detect and shut down access. Which of the following is the best way to deal with this issue?

A. To implement a strong firewall.

B. Implement a honey pot.

C. To implement a strong password policy.

D. None

E. To implement the network is based on antivirus.

Suggested Answer: B

Community Answer: C

Question 49

Which of the following conditions cannot enter the system ROM monitor mode? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A. The router does not find a valid operating system image.

B. The router does not have the configuration file.

C. The user interrupts the boot sequence.

D. It is necessary to set the operating parameters.

Suggested Answer: AC

Community Answer: BD

Question 50

Which of the following firewalls are used to monitor the status of active connections, and configure the network packets to pass through the firewall? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A. Farm owner

B. Proxy server

C. Dynamic packet filtering

D. The circuit gateway

Suggested Answer: CD

Community Answer: CD

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