PCNSA Practice Test Free – 50 Questions to Test Your Knowledge
Are you preparing for the PCNSA certification exam? If so, taking a PCNSA practice test free is one of the best ways to assess your knowledge and improve your chances of passing. In this post, we provide 50 free PCNSA practice questions designed to help you test your skills and identify areas for improvement.
By taking a free PCNSA practice test, you can:
- Familiarize yourself with the exam format and question types
- Identify your strengths and weaknesses
- Gain confidence before the actual exam
50 Free PCNSA Practice Questions
Below, you will find 50 free PCNSA practice questions to help you prepare for the exam. These questions are designed to reflect the real exam structure and difficulty level.
Recently changes were made to the firewall to optimize the policies and the security team wants to see if those changes are helping. What is the quickest way to reset the hit counter to zero in all the security policy rules?
A. At the CLI enter the command reset rules and press Enter
B. Highlight a rule and use the Reset Rule Hit Counter > Selected Rules for each rule
C. Reboot the firewall
D. Use the Reset Rule Hit Counter > All Rules option
Which user mapping method could be used to discover user IDs in an environment with multiple Windows domain controllers?
A. Active Directory monitoring
B. Windows session monitoring
C. Windows client probing
D. domain controller monitoring
Which interface does not require a MAC or IP address?
A. Virtual Wire
B. Layer3
C. Layer2
D. Loopback
An administrator notices that protection is needed for traffic within the network due to malicious lateral movement activity. Based on the image shown, which traffic would the administrator need to monitor and block to mitigate the malicious activity?
A. branch office traffic
B. north-south traffic
C. perimeter traffic
D. east-west traffic
Choose the option that correctly completes this statement. A Security Profile can block or allow traffic ____________.
A. on either the data place or the management plane.
B. after it is matched by a security policy rule that allows traffic.
C. before it is matched to a Security policy rule.
D. after it is matched by a security policy rule that allows or blocks traffic.
Employees are shown an application block page when they try to access YouTube. Which security policy is blocking the YouTube application?
A. intrazone-default
B. Deny Google
C. allowed-security services
D. interzone-default
Which statement is true regarding a Best Practice Assessment?
A. The BPA tool can be run only on firewalls
B. It provides a percentage of adoption for each assessment area
C. The assessment, guided by an experienced sales engineer, helps determine the areas of greatest risk where you should focus prevention activities
D. It provides a set of questionnaires that help uncover security risk prevention gaps across all areas of network and security architecture
An administrator needs to allow users to use their own office applications. How should the administrator configure the firewall to allow multiple applications in a dynamic environment?
A. Create an Application Filter and name it Office Programs, then filter it on the business-systems category, office-programs subcategory
B. Create an Application Group and add business-systems to it
C. Create an Application Filter and name it Office Programs, then filter it on the business-systems category
D. Create an Application Group and add Office 365, Evernote, Google Docs, and Libre Office
Which User-ID mapping method should be used for an environment with users that do not authenticate to Active Directory?
A. Windows session monitoring
B. passive server monitoring using the Windows-based agent
C. Captive Portal
D. passive server monitoring using a PAN-OS integrated User-ID agent
Which two statements are correct about App-ID content updates? (Choose two.)
A. Updated application content might change how Security policy rules are enforced.
B. After an application content update, new applications must be manually classified prior to use.
C. Existing security policy rules are not affected by application content updates.
D. After an application content update, new applications are automatically identified and classified.
DRAG DROP - Match the Cyber-Attack Lifecycle stage to its correct description. Select and Place:
Actions can be set for which two items in a URL filtering security profile? (Choose two.)
A. Block List
B. Custom URL Categories
C. PAN-DB URL Categories
D. Allow List
Which option shows the attributes that are selectable when setting up application filters?
A. Category, Subcategory, Technology, and Characteristic
B. Category, Subcategory, Technology, Risk, and Characteristic
C. Name, Category, Technology, Risk, and Characteristic
D. Category, Subcategory, Risk, Standard Ports, and Technology
DRAG DROP - Order the steps needed to create a new security zone with a Palo Alto Networks firewall. Select and Place:
Which two configuration settings shown are not the default? (Choose two.)
A. Enable Security Log
B. Server Log Monitor Frequency (sec)
C. Enable Session
D. Enable Probing
How many zones can an interface be assigned with a Palo Alto Networks firewall?
A. two
B. three
C. four
D. one
Which plane on a Palo Alto Networks Firewall provides configuration, logging, and reporting functions on a separate processor?
A. management
B. network processing
C. data
D. security processing
A company moved its old port-based firewall to a new Palo Alto Networks NGFW 60 days ago. Which utility should the company use to identify out-of-date or unused rules on the firewall?
A. Rule Usage Filter > No App Specified
B. Rule Usage Filter >Hit Count > Unused in 30 days
C. Rule Usage Filter > Unused Apps
D. Rule Usage Filter > Hit Count > Unused in 90 days
DRAG DROP - Match the Palo Alto Networks Security Operating Platform architecture to its description. Select and Place:
When creating a Source NAT policy, which entry in the Translated Packet tab will display the options Dynamic IP and Port, Dynamic, Static IP, and None?
A. Translation Type
B. Interface
C. Address Type
D. IP Address
Which dataplane layer of the graphic shown provides pattern protection for spyware and vulnerability exploits on a Palo Alto Networks Firewall?
A. Signature Matching
B. Network Processing
C. Security Processing
D. Data Interfaces
Based on the security policy rules shown, ssh will be allowed on which port?
A. 80
B. 53
C. 22
D. 23
A security administrator has configured App-ID updates to be automatically downloaded and installed. The company is currently using an application identified by App-ID as SuperApp_base. On a content update notice, Palo Alto Networks is adding new app signatures labeled SuperApp_chat and SuperApp_download, which will be deployed in 30 days. Based on the information, how is the SuperApp traffic affected after the 30 days have passed?
A. All traffic matching the SuperApp_chat, and SuperApp_download is denied because it no longer matches the SuperApp-base application
B. No impact because the apps were automatically downloaded and installed
C. No impact because the firewall automatically adds the rules to the App-ID interface
D. All traffic matching the SuperApp_base, SuperApp_chat, and SuperApp_download is denied until the security administrator approves the applications
Which interface type is used to monitor traffic and cannot be used to perform traffic shaping?
A. Layer 2
B. Tap
C. Layer 3
D. Virtual Wire
To use Active Directory to authenticate administrators, which server profile is required in the authentication profile?
A. domain controller
B. TACACS+
C. LDAP
D. RADIUS
Given the topology, which zone type should zone A and zone B to be configured with?
A. Layer3
B. Tap
C. Layer2
D. Virtual Wire
Which license must an Administrator acquire prior to downloading Antivirus Updates for use with the firewall?
A. Threat Prevention
B. WildFire
C. Antivirus
D. URL Filtering
Users from the internal zone need to be allowed to Telnet into a server in the DMZ zone. Complete the security policy to ensure only Telnet is allowed. Security Policy: Source Zone: Internal to DMZ Zone __________services `Application defaults`, and action = Allow
A. Destination IP: 192.168.1.123/24
B. Application = “Telnet”
C. Log Forwarding
D. USER-ID = “Allow users in Trusted”
Identify the correct order to configure the PAN-OS integrated USER-ID agent. 3. add the service account to monitor the server(s) 2. define the address of the servers to be monitored on the firewall 4. commit the configuration, and verify agent connection status 1. create a service account on the Domain Controller with sufficient permissions to execute the User- ID agent
A. 2-3-4-1
B. 1-4-3-2
C. 3-1-2-4
D. 1-3-2-4
An administrator receives a global notification for a new malware that infects hosts. The infection will result in the infected host attempting to contact a command- and-control (C2) server. Which two security profile components will detect and prevent this threat after the firewall's signature database has been updated? (Choose two.)
A. vulnerability protection profile applied to outbound security policies
B. anti-spyware profile applied to outbound security policies
C. antivirus profile applied to outbound security policies
D. URL filtering profile applied to outbound security policies
Your company requires positive username attribution of every IP address used by wireless devices to support a new compliance requirement. You must collect IP `"to-user mappings as soon as possible with minimal downtime and minimal configuration changes to the wireless devices themselves. The wireless devices are from various manufactures. Given the scenario, choose the option for sending IP-to-user mappings to the NGFW.
A. syslog
B. RADIUS
C. UID redistribution
D. XFF headers
At which stage of the Cyber-Attack Lifecycle would the attacker attach an infected PDF file to an email?
A. Delivery
B. Reconnaissance
C. Command and Control
D. Exploitation
Which two statements are correct regarding multiple static default routes when they are configured as shown in the image? (Choose two.)
A. Path monitoring does not determine if route is useable.
B. Route with highest metric is actively used.
C. Path monitoring determines if route is useable.
D. Route with lowest metric is actively used.
Which User-ID agent would be appropriate in a network with multiple WAN links, limited network bandwidth, and limited firewall management plane resources?
A. Windows-based agent deployed on the internal network
B. PAN-OS integrated agent deployed on the internal network
C. Citrix terminal server deployed on the internal network
D. Windows-based agent deployed on each of the WAN Links
Which type of Security policy rule would match traffic flowing between the Inside zone and Outside zone, within the Inside zone, and within the Outside zone?
A. global
B. intrazone
C. interzone
D. universal
Which two App-ID applications will you need to allow in your Security policy to use facebook-chat? (Choose two.)
A. facebook
B. facebook-chat
C. facebook-base
D. facebook-email
Which three statements describe the operation of Security policy rules and Security Profiles? (Choose three.)
A. Security policy rules are attached to Security Profiles.
B. Security Profiles are attached to Security policy rules.
C. Security Profiles should be used only on allowed traffic.
D. Security policy rules inspect but do not block traffic.
E. Security policy rules can block or allow traffic.
Which administrator type utilizes predefined roles for a local administrator account?
A. Superuser
B. Role-based
C. Dynamic
D. Device administrator
Given the image, which two options are true about the Security policy rules. (Choose two.)
A. The Allow-Office-Programs rule is using an Application Filter.
B. In the Allow-FTP policy, FTP is allowed using App-ID.
C. The Allow-Office-Programs rule is using an Application Group.
D. The Allow-Social-Media rule allows all of Facebook’s functions.
What are two differences between an implicit dependency and an explicit dependency in App-ID? (Choose two.)
A. An implicit dependency does not require the dependent application to be added in the security policy
B. An implicit dependency requires the dependent application to be added in the security policy
C. An explicit dependency does not require the dependent application to be added in the security policy
D. An explicit dependency requires the dependent application to be added in the security policy
Which two security profile types can be attached to a security policy? (Choose two.)
A. antivirus
B. DDoS protection
C. threat
D. vulnerability
The CFO found a USB drive in the parking lot and decide to plug it into their corporate laptop. The USB drive had malware on it that loaded onto their computer and then contacted a known command and control (CnC) server, which ordered the infected machine to begin Exfiltrating data from the laptop. Which security profile feature could have been used to prevent the communication with the CnC server?
A. Create an anti-spyware profile and enable DNS Sinkhole
B. Create an antivirus profile and enable DNS Sinkhole
C. Create a URL filtering profile and block the DNS Sinkhole category
D. Create a security policy and enable DNS Sinkhole
Which administrator type provides more granular options to determine what the administrator can view and modify when creating an administrator account?
A. Root
B. Dynamic
C. Role-based
D. Superuser
Which service protects cloud-based applications such as Dropbox and Salesforce by administering permissions and scanning files for sensitive information?
A. Aperture
B. AutoFocus
C. Panorama
D. GlobalProtect
The PowerBall Lottery has reached a high payout amount and a company has decided to help employee morale by allowing employees to check the number, but doesn't want to unblock the gambling URL category. Which two methods will allow the employees to get to the PowerBall Lottery site without the company unlocking the gambling URL category? (Choose two.)
A. Add all the URLs from the gambling category except powerball.com to the block list and then set the action for the gambling category to allow.
B. Manually remove powerball.com from the gambling URL category.
C. Add *.powerball.com to the allow list
D. Create a custom URL category called PowerBall and add *.powerball.com to the category and set the action to allow.
An administrator receives a global notification for a new malware that infects hosts. The infection will result in the infected host attempting to contact and command-and-control (C2) server. Which security profile components will detect and prevent this threat after the firewall's signature database has been updated?
A. antivirus profile applied to outbound security policies
B. data filtering profile applied to inbound security policies
C. data filtering profile applied to outbound security policies
D. vulnerability profile applied to inbound security policies
Which Palo Alto Networks component provides consolidated policy creation and centralized management?
A. GlobalProtect
B. Panorama
C. Prisma SaaS
D. AutoFocus
Which file is used to save the running configuration with a Palo Alto Networks firewall?
A. running-config.xml
B. run-config.xml
C. running-configuration.xml
D. run-configuration.xml
Which URL Filtering Profile action does not generate a log entry when a user attempts to access a URL?
A. Override
B. Allow
C. Block
D. Continue
In the example security policy shown, which two websites would be blocked? (Choose two.)
A. LinkedIn
B. Facebook
C. YouTube
D. Amazon
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